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> So you're no longer arguing that the government forced banks and mortgage companies to lend?

Not at all.

The govt actions to make subprime profitable merely meant that there wasn't as much reason to say "i'm not sure that this makes sense".



Very different assertion from saying that the government forced them to lend via a policy which used discrimination as its basis. I'll take it that you've given up on that point?


As I said, no.

Govt said that if your loan portfolio doesn't contain enough loans to certain people, you'll be shut down.

Govt then tried to make those loans make economic sense.

Yes, some folks arguably would have made those loans otherwise, but some wouldn't.


So if it had such a big impact, it should be easy to show data to support such a claim. Where is your data?

And you're attempting to move the goal posts once again here - by merging the two categories. Face it, you have zero evidence to back up the idea that the government actually EVER forced a bank or mortgage company to make loans. Trying to now say "the govt then tried to make these loans make economic sense" is just a junk argument.




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