Very different assertion from saying that the government forced them to lend via a policy which used discrimination as its basis. I'll take it that you've given up on that point?
So if it had such a big impact, it should be easy to show data to support such a claim. Where is your data?
And you're attempting to move the goal posts once again here - by merging the two categories. Face it, you have zero evidence to back up the idea that the government actually EVER forced a bank or mortgage company to make loans. Trying to now say "the govt then tried to make these loans make economic sense" is just a junk argument.
Not at all.
The govt actions to make subprime profitable merely meant that there wasn't as much reason to say "i'm not sure that this makes sense".